Advertisement - Hide this advert





Author Topic: What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE  (Read 7798 times)

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

Offline catfish

  • MICROgeek (<20 posts)
  • *
  • Posts: 4
  • Liked: 0
What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE
« on: June 04, 2012, 08:51:07 PM »
There is a diffusely fragmented patellar with multiple ossifications located deep to the quadriceps tendon. No gross tear of the infrapatellar or quadriceps tendons noted. Severe chondromlacia involving the remaining patellar fragments with diffused cartilage denudation involving the lateral trochlear groove with diffuse subchondral cystic changes.
   There is intrasubstance degeneration of the lateral meniscus with an associated small longitudinal horizontal tear involving the anterior horn just proximal to the root. There is diffused intra substance degeneration of the medial meniscus with blunting of the free margin of the body. The cruciate ligaments are grossly unremarkable. The collateral ligaments and iliotibial band is grossly unremarkable. The popliteus tendon and biceps femoris tendon are grossly unremarkable.
   There is moderate chondromalacia of the medial joint compartment with osteophyte formation. There is mild chondromalacia of the lateral joint compartment. There is a large joint effusion with synovitis. There is a small Bakers cyst. There is a five millimeter lose body within the lateral suprapatellar joint recess.
   IMPRESSION:
1.   Diffuse chronic fragmentation of the patella with severe loss of cartilage involving the visualized fragments. Associated severe cartilage denudation of the lateral  trochlear grove with diffuse subchondral  cystic changes.
2.   Diffuse intrasubstance degeneration medial meniscus  with blunting of the free margin of the body. Intrasubstance degeneration of the lateral meniscus with an associated small longitudinal horizontal tear involving the anterior horn.
AP and moderate chrondromalacia of the medial joint compartment. Mild chondromalacia of the lateral joint compartment.
4.   Large joint effusion with synovitis. Questionable five millimeter loose body within the lateral  suprapattellar joint recess.
  If anyone could please explain these findings to me, it would be greatly appreciated. As I am trying to figure out my next course of action.
  Thank you for your time, Mike   

Offline aaa

  • Forum Faithful
  • ****
  • Posts: 392
  • Liked: 1
Re: What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE
« Reply #1 on: June 04, 2012, 10:06:48 PM »
Did you have a hard fall on your knee/kneecap?  Or has your knee just had more symptoms gradually over time?

Offline catfish

  • MICROgeek (<20 posts)
  • *
  • Posts: 4
  • Liked: 0
Re: What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE
« Reply #2 on: June 04, 2012, 10:41:56 PM »
Thanks for responding. No, I never fell or had any trauma to my knee. I was diagnosed with a shattered patella back in 2003 & RA in 1998. I never had any surgery on it & I was basically pain free until about a month ago when I twisted it. I had it drained twice & shot with medrol. I can do leg exercises with my leg & ride a stationary bike on hardest level for 15mins. But I can't walk on it for more than 10mins. without it causing pain. Can bend it with no problems, its getting totally straight that causes the most pain. Very confusing. I also can't stand on it straight for more than 10mins. without it causing pain. It gives out on me for no reason every so often.

Offline dm

  • SuperKNEEgeek
  • *****
  • Posts: 1304
  • Liked: 19
  • I hate my knee!! :(
Re: What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE
« Reply #3 on: June 04, 2012, 11:39:13 PM »
"intrasubstance degeneration of the lateral meniscus with an associated small longitudinal horizontal tear involving the anterior horn just proximal to the root. There is diffused intra substance degeneration of the medial meniscus with blunting of the free margin of the body." translation #1 - sounds like medial and lateral meniscus tears are suspect, lateral for certain.

translation #2 - "five millimeter lose body within the lateral suprapatellar joint recess" - you've got a "floater" in the joint space that's wandering around in the joint that came off something in there, just waiting to get hung up in the works.

translation #3 - "moderate chondromalacia of the medial joint compartment with osteophyte formation. There is mild chondromalacia of the lateral joint compartment" - chondromalacia is defined as softening of the articular cartilage, which is the rubbery "gristle" covering the bone ends and the back of the kneecap and provides the gliding surface for the knee parts. Osteophyte is a fancy name for bone spurs or arthritis - the bone growing bone to protect itself. These osteophytes can interfere with joint function and cause pinching and pain depending on where they are, and in some cases may need to be trimmed up.

I can't "translate" everything that's on your mri - it's complex even for my experience of 6 surgeries - but I've tried to give you what "not-so-medical" meanings can be given to the conditions described. I'm not any expert, I've just had way too many times down this road.... hopefully it makes this report a little less scary for you, and your doc can explain the fine points. Note, there are some medical dictionaries online that can define the words, to help you understand the references. There's a good orthopedics text online too - not sure if I'm allowed to mention it by name, but I found it, so I'm guessing you could too.

I'm certainly no doctor, and can't tell you what your doctor would say needs doing about what you have going on. With at least one meniscus tear, and a free floating body in there, seems like an arthroscopy would be in order, but that's up to you and your doctor to decide. From what you describe with having  trouble straightening it, sounds like that "floater" is shifting and gumming up the works... seems logical, especially if some times are worse than others.
multiple arthroscopies 2/00,3/01,6/01,1/03, 12/07,10/10. chondromalacia, severe medial joint space narrowing following 3 partial menisectomies, chronic pain problems, kneecap problems, OCD lesion, failed mfx.

Offline catfish

  • MICROgeek (<20 posts)
  • *
  • Posts: 4
  • Liked: 0
Re: What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE
« Reply #4 on: June 05, 2012, 12:27:41 AM »
Thanks for your translations & insight.
  I have 2 appointments next week, one with the ER OS that has been treating me for this so far. He was recommended by my RA Dr.(they work out of the same hospital). Then I am going to see the OS that did my hip replacement (he also does knees) just for a second opinion. For I don't think just draining it & shooting it up with medrol is going to do it this time.
  Thanks again, you've been most helpful.

Offline dm

  • SuperKNEEgeek
  • *****
  • Posts: 1304
  • Liked: 19
  • I hate my knee!! :(
Re: What does this MRI mean in layman's terms, PLEASE
« Reply #5 on: June 05, 2012, 03:36:27 AM »
if the medrol gives you some temp relief but the symptoms come back... another sign that you've got a meniscus problem. My OS I've had for 10 yrs told me that one - they use that for a diagnostic tool without an mri - if they dose it up with the steroid and it helps temporarily, but the same symptom comes back... more than likely meniscus issue... especially with positive physical exam for meniscus type symptoms too like joint line pain on the questionable side, locking, catching etc. Your doc I'm sure would tell you the same thing if asked.
multiple arthroscopies 2/00,3/01,6/01,1/03, 12/07,10/10. chondromalacia, severe medial joint space narrowing following 3 partial menisectomies, chronic pain problems, kneecap problems, OCD lesion, failed mfx.















support